sunny starry skies, on 23 March 2010 - 17:57 , said:
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And all this does not explain why 50 years of high solar irradiance that has just recently ended should lead to a greater lag in time than the 70 years of the Maunder Minimum, wich coincides with the peak of the LIA in Europe (and does not apparently lead or lag it). Yet in each case we are talking about the energy gain and loss of a degree or so C, in the same world system. Yet temperatures are still rising (March looks like yet another record), and GISS note that the 12-month running all-time record will most likely be broken in the next few months. What is much more plausible is that the solar activity increase in the early 20th Century had a noticeable (if relatively small) impact, but then the effect levelled off, indicating a relatively short lag time. Anthropogenic impacts, already present in the early part of the century, become dominant once they override aerosol effects by the late 1970s. The trend since the 1970s has been approximately linear, as expected from an exponential increase in GHG counterbalancing the logarithmic forcing property of CO2. This sequence of events fits the observations, and a solar-dominated sequence of events does not.
And my last point for now - you keep mentioning laboratory CO2 (first sentence of your last-but-one post), but I was talking about real-world observations in the actual atmosphere. Why can we actually observe the CO2 energy imbalance from above and below, in the real world, as predicted by the physical properties of CO2, if it's not supposed to be effective or if there are mitigating factors? The energy imbalance caused by anthropogenic CO2 is as real as the observations of sunspots or the measurement of air pressure. Why try and invoke another mechanism that has been tried and does not fit, when we have one that we can see, have a very sound physical mechanism for, and fits very well? Speaking of which, how do you warm the troposphere and cool the stratosphere by increasing solar activity?
sss
Well, I said I'd get back to you, so here I am.
I've snipped the first paragraph since I've already replied to that bit, so I'll move on to the second. My first issue with what you say is that you're comparing a peak going to a trough with a just a trough(unless you are talking about the dip
into the Maunder Minimum rather than the whole Maunder period).
The thing is that the current period is not really comparable with the Maunder Minimum (yet!) because the Maunder minimum was a period of 70 years with little to no sunspot activity. We have had a prolonged minimum, but it was only about 2 years and it would appear that we are now coming out of it, so we are still potentially on the "downward slide" rather than "in the trough". Prior to the Maunder minimum there had been a general downward trend in solar activity for over 1000 years (compared with the current slide over about 60 years, or even 100 years if you want to round up to the nearest century).
(
http://upload.wikime...0_years.svg.png)
Now onto the issue of the "gain or loss of 1 degree or so". The LIA started in the 16th Century and continued through to the 19th Century - the Maunder Minimum, by comparison, started around 1645 and ended around 1715. Clearly, then, something forced the start of the LIA prior to the Maunder Minimum. But solar activity had been steadily declining all ready for centuries. So perhaps the LIA was a symptom of decreasing solar activity, and the bottoming-out of sunspots over the Maunder minimum came too late to have any further effect (bearing in mind, of course, that even when there are no sunspots, the sun still gives us energy!).
So, basically what I'm getting at is that the Maunder Minimum was just the lowest point in an all ready existing downward trend. If we were to have a Maunder-type minimum right now it would (tgo my way of thinking) have a more serious effect because a bottoming-out would be a particularly long way to fall from our decreasing,
but still particularly high, level of solar activity.
You put forward the idea that your suggestion regards solar activity is "more plausible", yet the Leaky Integrator shows that it is eminently
plausible for the Sun to be responsible for 20th Century warming. It's a long way from proven, I'll grant you, but If we're talking
plausibility then I think it has sufficiently shown that.
I'm not entirely sure about your "exponential increase in CO2 balancing the logarithmic effect of CO2" comment either, because it seems like a heckuva coincidence that we should, quite without trying, just happen to be increasing our CO2 emissions at the perfect contrasting speed to offset a logarithmic warming effect. Does that not strike you as coincidental, or just plain odd?
I will have to come back (again!) to your third paragraph - I'm starting to get some ideas of how the troposphere/stratosphere thing might work without invoking CO2, but I need to check some things through before I make an idiot of myself!
As a quick reply, though, I would like to say that I have read through the RealClimate article which discusses this, and they link to this page:
http://www.atmospher...e/enid/20c.html
I would draw your attention to this quote:
It's, of course, harder to measure the temperature in the stratosphere than in the troposphere where we have a network of measurement stations. Stratospheric temperature measurements do exist. They have been made using weather balloons, microwave sounding units, rocketsondes, LIDAR and satellites. Most of these readings only go back two or three decades at most and there are large uncertainities associated with the data.
Just how well quantified is this cooling/warming effect? I shall dig a bit more before getting back to you.
I
will get back to you though!
CB